The term “efficient market” in
economics has a much more rarefied meaning than I perceive the bankruptcy
judges using it to recognize, and that is another reason why I doubt that the
plurality intended the term to function as a legal standard.
In classic economic theory, efficiency usually means “Pareto
efficiency” after the great Italian economist Vilfredo Pareto, and is specifically the state in which no participant can
be made better off without some other participant being made worse off. Here is an excerpt from
"The Cartoon Introduction to Economics: Volume I: Microeconomics" by
Klein and Bauman (2010) that illustrates this:
Hey, it's a cartoon, sorry. I edited out the stereotyped cartoon at the bottom but could not get Blogger to take the edited image.
In any introductory micro-economics
course, the students will learn that a perfectly competitive market – one in
which all products are identical or can be traded off against one another,
where no participant has enough market power to affect the market by its
actions, where everyone has perfect knowledge, where there are no transaction
costs -- is “Pareto-efficient” at equilibrium.
In fact, that statement is the "first fundamental theorem" of
"welfare economics."
The equilibrium state is usually
illustrated by drawing two lines on an X/Y graph, which represent the
hypothetical demand and supply calculations of, respectively, the buyers and
sellers in the market, in such a way that they intersect at a point somewhere
around the middle of the upper right quadrant, which is called the equilibrium
point or the “market clearing” point, at which both buyers and sellers get the
most they can out of the market, and then showing how moving on any curve away
from that point makes some better off and some worse off; thus the equilibrium
point is Pareto-efficient. Here is a
typical visual representation of the theorem, which I copied from this site):
The site I took that from explains the diagram as follows:
The site I took that from explains the diagram as follows:
In
the diagram above, the market is in equilibrium at price P1 and output Q1. At this point, the total area of
consumer and producer surplus is maximized. If for example, suppliers were able
to restrict output to Q2 and hike the market price up to P2, sellers would gain
extra producer surplus by widening their profit margins, but there also would
be an even greater loss of consumer
surplus. Thus P2 is not an allocative efficient
allocation of resources for this market whereas P1, the market equilibrium
price is deemed to be allocative-efficient.
Obviously, the theorem and its
underlying conditions constitute a highly stylized representation of markets
and reality, and I think it is fair to say they represent an ideal or quasi –
Platonic conceptualization of the perfectly competitive market – absolutely no
one can be better or worse off -- and do
not correspond to very many real world markets, all of which have some
departure from the absolutist conditions that define the idealized perfectly
competitive market (they have some transaction costs, some market participants
have greater knowledge than others, or the full roster of products may not be
perfect substitutes for one another, and so on). At the date of this writing, the wikipedia entry on the "fundamental theorems
of welfare economics" says : "The ideal conditions of the theorems,
however, are an abstraction."
People who make their living
arguing legal issues will, I think, recognize that how rigorously a standard is
defined has a lot to do with whether the standard is satisfied in a given case,
and further that it is a frequent tactic in legal argument, and debate
generally, to try to have your adversary’s position measured against the highest
standard possible, while at the same time trying (as subtly as possible) to
position your own point of view against as low a standard of review as
possible. For example, many advocates of
governmental intervention in the economy cry "market failure"
whenever the real world fails to satisfy the idealized conditions of the first
fundamental theorem, and call for government to intervene in the economy to fix
the purported shortcomings of the market
-- never bothering to hold the proposed government intervention to the
same exacting standard, or even to offer proof that the government intervention
results in a net welfare improvement compared to the market outcome. This post from my favorite blog, Marginal
Revolution, is a succinct commentary on the logical fallacies and analytic
shortcomings of such an argument.
So, too, if courts were to interpret the "efficient market" reference in the Till footnote to be satisfied only upon a showing that chapter 11 debtors have access to an idealized, perfectly competitive market, it is unlikely that debtors would ever lose a cram-up litigation. And why then would we need to give creditors disclosure or let them vote?
Is this what the justices in the Till plurality opinion meant by an “efficient market”? Even though it was signed by the left wing of the Court, I think not. It would be disingenuous for a lawmaker in a republic, where the citizenry is supposed to be sovereign, to impose a criteria of perfection for exemption from governmental action without saying so, and perhaps also making clear that the lawmaker was aware of the difficulty of human beings achieving perfection.
Secondly, more specifically in the context of chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Code, it is a law that largely addresses relationships of a private, commercial nature, where all issues are decided by a preponderance of the evidence. In that realm, I would expect the Court to impose nothing more stringent than a commercially reasonable perspective, much as they justified the prime-plus formula in Till itself on pragmatic, administrative grounds.
So, too, if courts were to interpret the "efficient market" reference in the Till footnote to be satisfied only upon a showing that chapter 11 debtors have access to an idealized, perfectly competitive market, it is unlikely that debtors would ever lose a cram-up litigation. And why then would we need to give creditors disclosure or let them vote?
Is this what the justices in the Till plurality opinion meant by an “efficient market”? Even though it was signed by the left wing of the Court, I think not. It would be disingenuous for a lawmaker in a republic, where the citizenry is supposed to be sovereign, to impose a criteria of perfection for exemption from governmental action without saying so, and perhaps also making clear that the lawmaker was aware of the difficulty of human beings achieving perfection.
Secondly, more specifically in the context of chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Code, it is a law that largely addresses relationships of a private, commercial nature, where all issues are decided by a preponderance of the evidence. In that realm, I would expect the Court to impose nothing more stringent than a commercially reasonable perspective, much as they justified the prime-plus formula in Till itself on pragmatic, administrative grounds.
A recent article by Professor Henry
Hu at the University of Texas Law School sheds more light on the justices’
understanding of the term “efficient market”.
In his 2012 paper “Efficient Markets and the Law: A
Predictable Past and an Uncertain Future,” Professor Hu explains how the
Supreme Court, in Basic,
Inc. v Levinson
allowed a 10b-5 lawsuit to proceed without a showing of individual reliance by
plaintiffs, but instead afforded them a presumption that, if they could show
the stock market was processing information about the company efficiently,
their individual reliance on that information would be presumed. This doctrine has come to be known as the “fraud
on the market” theory and is in part responsible for expanding enormously the
expert witness opportunities for economists, who are asked to create “event
studies” showing how the stock market reacted to information about a company
involved in a 10b-5 suit. A 2007 article
by Howard Hammer and Ronald Groeber at this link has a succinct overview of the
intellectual dynamic whereby the EMH led to the "fraud on the market"
theory.[1]
As Professor Hu most recently observes,
although the Supreme Court did not define efficient market,
subsequent lower courts have generally adopted the Fama (1970) definition of it
as being one in which the market price of the stock fully reflects all public
information [citing In re PolyMedica Corp., Securities Litigation, 432 F.3d 1
(1st Cir. 2005)]. The Supreme Court also
did not distinguish between informational efficiency (a market where prices
react quickly to new information) and value efficiency (where market prices
reflect intrinsic value). Lower courts
have required only a showing of informational efficiency.
Hu continues: “To determine the
presence of informational efficiency, courts have looked at factors such as
weekly trading volume and the number of securities analysts covering a given
stock”.
The reference to “Fama (1970)” is to
the scholarly paper from which the “efficient market hypothesis” sprung, which is
generally credited with launching a new field of study by economists of
financial markets and supplied the analytic foundation for index investing.[2] For his work in that field, Fama was awarded
the Nobel in Economics in 2013, along with Robert Shiller, whose work calls
into question several of Fama’s theses and the EMH; the Nobel committee's
explanation of their work is here and provides a nice background
summary of the topic and their contributions to the field. Fama's paper, which he created after being
asked to review various stock market investment strategies and concluding that
none of them systematically worked, posited that well-functioning capital
markets were sufficiently efficient that no one could systematically earn more
than the market's return over an extended time.
Fama did not claim that all, or particular, financial markets were
perfectly efficient. In fact, he posited
certain levels of efficiency: the "weak" form, which simply said that
it is impossible to predict, based solely on a security's historical price
trend, what the security's price is going to be in the future, and therefore it
is impossible to outperform the market systematically using that
knowledge. The "semi-strong"
form, which is what most people focus on, held that market prices respond to
publicly available information so efficiently that, again, no one can
systematically earn more than a market return based on that information. Last, he posited a "strong" form of capital market
efficiency, in which even non-public information is efficiently incorporated
into security prices, a state that the insider trading laws make it hard to
achieve.
This short transcript of recent remarks by John Cochrane,
President of the American Economics Association and a colleague of Fama’s at
the University of Chicago, contains a discussion that is relevant to
understanding what “informational efficiency” means in the context of financial
markets. Cochrane decries the widespread
ignorance of the definition of informational ‘efficiency.’
Every field of scholarly research develops a technical terminology, often
appropriating common words. But people who don’t know those definitions can say
and write nonsense about the academic work.
An informationally-efficient market can suffer economically
inefficient runs and crashes -- so long as those crashes are not predictable.
An informationally efficient market can have very badly regulated banks. People
who say ‘the crash proves markets are inefficient’ or ‘efficient market finance
is junk, you did not foresee the crash’ just don’t know what the word
‘efficiency’ means. The main prediction of efficient markets is exactly that
price movements should be unpredictable! Steady profits without risk would be a
clear rejection.
I once told a reporter that I thought markets were pretty
‘efficient.’ He quoted me as saying that
markets are ‘self-regulating.’ Sadly, even famous academics say things like
this all the time.
There is a fascinating story here, worth study by historians
and philosophers of science and its rhetoric. What would have happened had Gene
[Fama] used another word? What if he had called it the ‘reflective’ markets
hypothesis, that prices “reflect” information? Would we still be arguing at
all?
What Cochrane is saying is that too
many people confuse "informational efficiency" with "value
efficiency", that whether prices in an efficient market reflect available
information is a different proposition from with whether those prices
“correctly” predict and discount the future cash flows of the entities in
question. Whereas the former tracks
relatively easily identifiable data -- price movements and information
dissemination -- there are two additional levels of subjectivity in the latter
proposition: the subjective judgment of investors in valuing the disseminated
information, and the subjective judgment of the analyst of those valuations in
positing an extrinsic standard for “correct” valuation.[3]
Without going too deeply into the
academic debate over the EMH, it should be noted that this distinction was
noted by Fama in his early exposition of the EMH. In articulating what came to
be known as the "joint hypothesis" conundrum, he wrote: "An efficient market
will always ‘fully reflect’ available information, but in order to determine
how the market should 'fully reflect' this information, we need to determine
investors’ risk preferences. Therefore,
any test of the EMH is a test of both market efficiency and investors’ risk
preferences.” This "dual
hypothesis" conundrum is well recognized in the academic literature
examining the EMH.[4]
Still -- and again, without wading
too deeply into the academic thicket -- it is generally held in financial
economics that (1) prices in the financial markets reflect the information
relevant to the securities/claims traded therein, and (2) assuming the
conditions to an efficient market are satisfied, the allocation of risk and
income in such a market will wind up being Pareto-efficient.
One point needs to be emphasized regarding
the meaning of "efficient market" because it is of particular
importance to understand whether the term “efficient market” is being applied
intelligently in chapter 11 cram-ups. “Pareto-efficiency” does not mean that
everyone in the market gets the terms they desired. This needs to be repeated: Pareto-efficiency does not mean that everyone
in the market gets to buy or sell the quantity they want at exactly the price
they unilaterally specify. The supply
curve and the demand curve only intersect at one point; every higher price on
the supply curve, and every lower price on the demand curve, represent better
outcomes for, respectively, sellers and buyers.
Sellers would rather sell less units for more money and buyers would
rather buy more units for less money, but the gap between the market – clearing
price and each side’s desires does not mean the market is inefficient; it means
the opposite: because part of the definition of an "efficient market"
is that no one has enough market power to move the market price on his or her own,
the term implies that no market participant's preference about pricing is privileged
over another's. If a buyer approaches a
seller who quotes too high a price, the buyer can find a lower one somewhere
else. If a buyer offers too low a price,
the seller can transact with someone who is willing to pay more. That is the
fundamental dynamic of the efficient market.
A seller / lender is not forced to sell/lend below market, and a buyer/borrower
is not forced to pay above market.
So, while I think the term
"efficient market" in footnote 14 was not intended to convey a
precise technical meaning, to the extent it has taken on a life of its own in
the lower courts, I wanted to lay out some basic points about its technical
meaning, as it appears to me that the lower courts have been proceeding in considerable
ignorance of that meaning in their interpretations of footnote 14. The crucial takeaways should be that
1) the phrase "efficient market" should be
interpreted to require only pragmatic, not idealized, efficiency because
chapter 11 is a pragmatic, not idealized, context;
2) to the extent the phrase is to be given a technical
meaning, it likely means "informational efficiency", i.e., that the
financial market is one in which prices adjust rapidly to changes in
information about the risk and reward embedded in the financial transaction,
nothing more;
3) it is vital to recognize that risk preferences must be
accounted for in assessing a financial market’s efficiency;
4) in an efficient market, everyone is a price taker and
therefore no participant is privileged to impose a non-market price on his, her
or its counterparty; and
5) in the context of financial markets, if no single investor’s judgments about the price-information relationship can be expected to systematically outperform the rest of the market over the long term, then it is unlikely single bankruptcy judges should be expected to do better than the market in putting a price on credit risk.
5) in the context of financial markets, if no single investor’s judgments about the price-information relationship can be expected to systematically outperform the rest of the market over the long term, then it is unlikely single bankruptcy judges should be expected to do better than the market in putting a price on credit risk.
[1] The doctrine has been questioned for
various reasons outside the scope of this article. In
the current term, the Supreme Court
has granted cert in Halliburton Co. v.
Erica P. John Fund, Inc., which, as this Harvard
Law School blog post explains, may become a vehicle
to overrule Basic Inc and throw the "fraud
on the market" theory out of securities law.
[2] In fact, the original insight into
this feature of financial markets came from the Ph.D thesis of a French mathematician Louis Bachelier, "Theory
of Speculation" in 1900, that went unnoticed for decades, perhaps due to the impact of two wars on
the French economy.
[3] A further concern that courts
should keep in mind in evaluating approaches to cram-down issues is whether adjudication in a government forum of
the testimony of experts is a superior mechanism to establish an extrinsic standard of what is a correct
value for a security. I think it is
safe to say that in the history of the last
century of judicial review of economic regulation, courts have evolved a
considerable reluctance to become
the forum for setting prices for economic actors to pay in the future.
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